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Linda November 1, 2013 at 10:33 am

Thank you Jack for the proper meaning of a Gentile, now it makes much more sense to me as I read the bible. I’m so happy to be an heir. Bless you.

Jack Wellman November 1, 2013 at 10:36 am

Linda, thank you so much. Your comment matches the meaning of your name, which in Spanish means “beautiful.” I appreciate your kind words.

william mungwira November 2, 2013 at 5:35 am

so when the Israelites were taken out of Egypt were they mixed with this Gentiles or what

Jack Wellman November 2, 2013 at 6:36 am

Thank you Mr. Mungwira. Yes, there were both Eygptians and Israelites mixed together but the point is that this is about the new and better covenant under Jesus’ atonement where there is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male or female but all of Christ’s who repent, confess and trust in Him.

Mr Anthony Cotton November 9, 2013 at 3:05 pm

The most important thing that you say Jack is that God see`s no difference between any peoples.
He did not make the jews any more important than the gentiles,or any other race.
When it is said that the gentiles were overjoyed that God recognized them is proof.
The downside to the Jewish nation was especially Hitler was tying to exterminate them all.
Sadly it still remains so today. I personally don`t have any race issue`s at all. It`s the extremist`s,and fanatics in any religion today that are to blame.

Jack Wellman November 9, 2013 at 4:09 pm

Amen Anthony…well said. I am glad that you say the thesis behind this article and that God is no respecter of persons…for which I for one, am glad. Sad, yes, there are those who still judge from the outside when it truly what is in the heart that counts. Thank you friend.

DocReits November 24, 2013 at 4:14 pm

Hi Jack,

I have a question and you know how I like to play “you know who’s” advocate…;-)

Abraham was chosen out of all of the people on the face of the earth to be “a peculiar people” to the Lord. This “peculiar” means special, set apart, not the same as those living along side his offspring.

It was to them and not the goyim that God gave the promise and shared His real presence. Sure, as you alluded, if the goys wanted to become a member of the eventual Israelite clan there were rules to become such….but they became grafted into Israel and became worshipers of the true God and, as such, received His blessing.

I do not see any evangelistic efforts to get the message out about Jehovah in the OT to the goyim. The only time I recall is when the inhabitants outside the arc were destroyed and when the deceptive sons of Jacob hoodwinked a bunch of guys to get circumcised so they could kill them as they were healing…. in retribution for the King’s son raping their sister.

Now we have the NT where we are told to keep our lamps filled and our garments white for the eventual coming back of our Lord Christ.
We are told to proclaim the Gospel., yet at the same time satan is hardening the hearts of those God knows will be unsaved….ironic? It’s a “God thing”…;-)

“17 This I say, therefore, and testify in the Lord, that you should no longer walk as the rest of[d] the Gentiles walk, in the futility of their mind, 18 having their understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God, because of the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart; 19 who, being past feeling, have given themselves over to lewdness, to work all uncleanness with greediness.”(Eph 4:17-19)

The god of this age(Satan) has blinded those who choose to walk in darkness because they hate the light and rather have darkness:

“3 But even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are perishing, 4 whose minds the god of this age has blinded, who do not believe, lest the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine on them” (2 Cor 4:3)

““Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil” (John 3:19). In other words, they want darkness, they don’t want light.

All the preaching in the world will not change the hearts of those destined for darkness. Do we stop preaching…No! Because we do not know what God knows. Are we a special people called out of darkness? Yes! Why? To become His bride and bring Glory and Honor to His Name.

Watchman Ne believes in special election…to wit…those whose garments are white and lamps full, watching and waiting for the return of our King, will be swept up to meet Him in the clouds where the wedding supper of the Lamb will take place. Those who are saved but are lax in faithfulness and are living as the world, will populate the kingdom, but not as the bride.

I am on the fence there. I can certainly understand Watchman’s position and have sat under really smart pastors supporting this idea, but I am not convinced.

So you can see my query. Watchman Ne would argue that we are a special people still called out by God and that the number of enrollees have been decided. The dinner guests are known. Yes there are no Greeks, Jews, or Gentiles at the dinner feast…we are all His bride, but the goyim are still without the camp. The “other nations” still exist.

Your thoughts?

DocReits

Jack Wellman November 24, 2013 at 9:54 pm

Thanks Doc. Maybe you didn’t know but the word “goyim” is a derogatory label for non-Israelites or as the Bible dictionary calls it ” Often Disparaging. a non-Jewish person; gentile” and is used as a disparaging term for one who is not a Jew. Let me also say that I don’t have a lot of time to point-counterpoint as I am still at work…and even had to work on my birthday today. I wish I didn’t have to work on my birhtday all day but I am still blessed. Exausted with school (seminary), family, work, pastoring, the website, and more but thnank GOd anyway. Israel was to be an example to other nations and not to proselytize. God never told them to evangelize the nations.

Jehovah Witnesses believe that the number of saved (the supposed 144,000) is already full but this is not biblical as Jesus said to go and make disciples of ALL nations and go into ALL the world and not just wait until there’s 144,000. That number from Revelation has nothing to do with a certain limit of people being called and then we are to stop. God will draw ALL men and all tongues, nations, and peoples will come to worship the Lamb at His return (Rev 7:9) and in the meantime we are to “GO!” and not to wait and stop when so many are reached.

JW’s are totally a cult and have had so many false prophets predict and fail Christ’s return that they would have been stones in the Old Testament. Prophets must bat 100% or else their not from God! If the organization did not actually prophesy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? (“They lost roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn’t come as they had implied over and over again,” said Jim Penton, an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah’s Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.) Since the Organization has received “new light” regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their view on this, does this mean that all the former Jehovah’s witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw’s in fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did not?If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling them “inspired” yet the Watchtower organization does call themselves “God’s Spirit-directed Prophet” what is the difference? Is there such a thing as an “uninspired prophet”? NO!

How do we know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this to first century Christians? How can the organization know the exact number of vacancies today without any records from the first century? The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8). If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two? In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, “Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother …”. Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven? Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, “But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven…” and, “… their God for he has made a city ready for them.” The footnote on the word “city” refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?

As for Watchman Ne, let me show you some very serious errors this man taught”

Nee outlines no method of Bible study and interpretation and appears to deny evangelical hermeneutics. In his book Spiritual Authority, he sets himself and his elders up as the unquestionable authorities. By all appearances, Nee saw himself not as a servant but as a guru.

One gets the impression from Nee that the Bible was not nearly as important as Christians generally consider it. In his book The Ministry of God’s Word, Nee says, “Words alone cannot be considered God’s Word.” In this book, Nee becomes very philosophical, mystical and incoherent. He says that only as we deliver the Word in terms of the “reality behind it,” using what he calls “Holy Spirit memory” and “presenting the pictures as well as speaking the words” will the words be correct; otherwise they are not real.

Nee overemphasizes emotions. In The Ministry of God’s Word, he claims that the effectiveness of a preacher’s delivery is a product of his emotions. If a preacher does not feel emotionally charged in delivery, “the Spirit is stuck” and the “Spirit is inevitably arrested,” Nee says. He continues, “The Spirit flows through the channel of emotion.” Then he arrives at a strange conclusion: “Nose in the Scripture stands for feeling. Smelling is a most delicate act, man’s feeling is most delicate.” Therefore, Nee says, a preacher in speaking needs to “mix feelings with the words spoken, else his words are dead. If our feeling lags behind, our words are stripped of the spirit.” To say as Nee does, on page 210, that the Holy Spirit only rides on feeling is dangerous.

Nee uses terms imprecisely. One example is his writing about a minister’s receiving “revelations” in his “Holy Spirit memory” and those revelations being remembered in us by the Holy Spirit. This sort of metaphysical mumbo jumbo is impossible to understand, since there is no direct scriptural reference to a “Holy Spirit memory.”

Ko We August 10, 2016 at 7:42 am

IT is unfortunate that most people have so many mistaken ideas about their religion, due largely to the many mistranslations of words in the commonly-used King James Version of the Bible. One of these mistaken ideas is that most of the people of the United States and Western Europe – in fact, nearly all the Christians in the world – are “Gentiles”. You hear many of them – even clergymen, who should know better – say, “I’m just a Gentile, saved by grace.” I think it is high time that we learned something about one of the most mis-used words, “Gentile.”

First, you might be surprised to know that there is no such word in the Bible, in its original languages. Oh yes, I know that you are now riffling the pages of your King James Version, looking for some of the many places you will find “Gentile” in it. But I said that there is no such word in the Bible IN ITS ORIGINAL LANGUAGES. The word was put into it by translators, who changed the wording of the Bible centuries after the last book in the Bible was written. If you are a good Christian, you will surely agree with me that what the prophets originally wrote in the books which make up our Bible was inspired by God. It was correct as the prophets wrote it. But not one of them wrote in English, remember, because no such language as English existed until many centuries after the prophets lived. It was written in Hebrew, as to the Old Testament; and the New Testament was originally written in the language which Jesus Christ spoke, Aramaic, a Semitic dialect somewhat similar to, but not the same as, Hebrew. But Aramaic was not generally understood outside of Western Asia; so when Christianity began to spread into southern and southeastern Europe, the New Testament had to be translated into a language which was widely used in Europe. Greek served this purpose nicely, for it was understood by well-educated men over nearly all of Europe. Therefore, the New Testament was first translated into Greek. Protestant English-language translations of the Bible, today, are nearly all translated from Hebrew manuscripts of the Old Testament and Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. So, let us start at the beginning, with the Old Testament.

The word “Gentile” is not even once used in any Hebrew manuscript of the Old Testament, for the good reason that there is no such word in Hebrew, nor any word which corresponds to it. Everywhere you find the word “Gentile” used in the Old Testament, it is a mistranslation of the Hebrew word “GOY,” which means “NATION.” The plural form of it is “GOYIM.” Since it means “nation,” why didn’t they translate it correctly? Sometimes they did; but for the most part, they translated it to fit the official doctrines of the church of their day, no matter what violence that did to the true meaning of the word. The church hierarchy had long since determined what its doctrines should be: and if the Bible didn’t agree with them, so much the worse for the Bible. Men were still being burned at the stake for heresy, in those days, and “heresy” meant any religious idea which differed from the official doctrines proclaimed by the bishops. So the translators did the best the Church would allow them to do. Let us take some examples.

In Genesis 12:2, God said to Abram, “I will make of thee a great nation.” In Hebrew, God said “I will make of thee a great GOY.” It would have been too silly to translate that “I will make a Gentile of you,” so they correctly translated it “nation.” Again Genesis 25:23, Rebekah was pregnant with the twins, Esau and Jacob; and while still in her womb, the unborn children were struggling against each other; so she wondered at this, and asked of God what was the meaning of this? God said to her, “Two GOYIM are in thy womb.” Certainly God was not telling her, “You are an adulteress, pregnant with two Gentile children, when your husband is not a Gentile.” God said “Two NATIONS are in thy womb,” and that is the way it was translated; but it is that same word, “GOYIM,” which elsewhere they generally translate as “Gentiles.”

Now let us take some examples from the New Testament.

Here the word mistranslated “Gentile” is nearly always the Greek word, “ETHNOS” which means just exactly “NATION,” the same as the Hebrew word “Goy.” Luke 7 begins with the incident of a Roman Centurion who appealed to Jesus Christ to heal his servant who was sick unto death. The Elders of the Jews praised him to Jesus, saying “He loveth our ETHNOS, and hath built us a synagogue.” These Jews would never praise anyone for loving the Gentiles; and the Centurion would not have built a synagogue for Gentiles. So, to avoid complete absurdity, the translators were forced to translate “ETHNOS” correctly, as “NATION.” Again, in John 11:50, we find that the Jewish High Priest, Caiaphas, was plotting with the chief priests and Pharisees, to murder Jesus Christ; and Caiaphas told them, “it is expedient for us that one man should die for the people, and that the whole ETHNOS perish not.” Nothing could have pleased this evil Jew more than for all the Gentiles to perish – using the word “Gentile” as we do today. Therefore, the translators had to translate “ETHNOS” correctly, as “nation.” Yet in many other places they mistranslate it “Gentile.”

The Greek word “ETHNOS” means simply “nation,” nothing more or less. It has no pagan, or non-Israel, or even non-Greek connotation. The Greeks distinguished between Greeks and all non-Greek peoples, whom they called “Barbarians.” All educated men of that day knew this, and the Apostle Paul was a very well-educated man, who was quite familiar with the Greek language and its idioms. He recognized this distinction in Romans 1:14, where he said, “I am debtor both to the Greeks and to the Barbarians.” Paul, therefore, never wrote the word “Gentile” in any of his Epistles.

What does this word “Gentile” mean, and from what is it derived? It is derived from the Latin word “GENTILES,” which means “ONE WHO IS NOT A ROMAN CITIZEN.” If you use the word correctly, then you would have to say that Jesus Christ and His twelve disciples were all Gentiles, because none of them was a Roman Citizen. Only Paul could say that he was not a “Gentile,” because in the 22nd chapter of Acts, Paul says that he was a Roman citizen by birth.

How, then, is it used at present when the speaker means to say that someone is non-Jewish? About the fourth century A.D., its use was loosely extended to cover more than its original meaning. It was applied especially to those who were heathen, pagan; it became a term for those who were neither Christian nor Jewish, for Christians and Jews were generally called just that, (Christian; or Jew). But this was centuries after the last book in the New Testament had been written.

The word “Gentile” was never used by the writer of any book of the Old Testament, because none of them had ever heard it, as they had never come in contact with Rome. It was not used by the writer of any book of the New Testament, for there is no such word in the Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek languages. They did not borrow the word from the Latin, for if you will look up every place it is used in your King James Version, you will see that it is never used in the correct sense, to say that someone is not a Roman citizen; and that is the only meaning it had, the only way anybody used it, in those days. It was put in by the translators in an effort to make the Bible say what the translators thought it should have said. Therefore, it has no authority at all.

In short, wherever you see the word “Gentile” in the Bible, remember that the correct word is “nation,” “race”, or “people.” Sometimes it is used when speaking of ISRAEL nations or the ISRAELITE race, as we have seen in the examples I have given you. In other instances, the context will show that it is being used of a nation which is non-Israelite. Only the context in which it is used will show you which meaning to give it. When used of non-Israelite peoples, perhaps “Gentile” is as good a word as any, for we seem to have no other in general use. But never be deceived by reading the word “Gentile” in your Bible, for its only correct meaning is “nation” or “race.”

Les February 3, 2017 at 11:37 am

What about the Hellenists, referred to distinctly in scripture. I think we need to consider that there really are 3 categories of peoples in the NT. The challenge I have is that I don’t always know when the NT is referring to other gentiles or Greek speaking Jews (Hellenists).

Charlotte August 19, 2017 at 8:24 am

Thank for this breakdown it really helped ne a lot.

Inoise Moses February 18, 2018 at 7:38 am

Genesis 10 should be included in defining the term Gentiles. The Bible states that Gentiles are descendants of Japhet. Which gives validity to the prophecy in Luke 21: 24 which states that the Gentiles are trodding down Jerusalem.

Jack Wellman February 18, 2018 at 10:23 am

yes, there was always a chosen line, but that does not mean there has always been a separation of Jews and Gentiles. Until the time of Abraham, and then fully outlined in the time of Moses, the chosen line was not commanded not to intermarry with the rest of humanity.

It seems, then, that the formal separation of Jews and Gentiles did not occur until God called Abraham to be the father of His chosen nation, Israel (Genesis 12). Many view Abraham as the first Jew, even though the precise term Jew did not come into use until after the return from exile when the tribe of Judah (“Jew”-dah) was dominant. However, since Abraham’s son Ishmael was not of the chosen line, and since Abraham’s grandson Esau was not of the chosen line, a more accurate placement of the division of Jews from Gentiles would be with Jacob, whose name was changed by God to Israel (Genesis 32:28). All of the descendants of Jacob, through his 12 sons (the fathers of the 12 tribes of Israel), were members of God’s chosen nation. Therefore, it seems most biblically sound to place the division of Jew and Gentile at Jacob, the father of Israel.

Inoise Moses February 19, 2018 at 10:24 pm

My comment was to the defining of the Gentiles, ‘anyone who is not jewish’ (Israelite). The Bible identifies the descendants of Noah’s sons. The definition of Gentiles used would mean that Ham’s descendants are Gentiles, they are Hamites. Ishmael and Esau are not Jewish (Israelites) but they are Semitic, descendants of Shem. The jews today are numbered to be 70% Ashkenazi Jews living in Israel. Ashkenaz is a descendant of Japhet. The Bible identifies Japhet as Gentile.

Jack Wellman February 19, 2018 at 10:38 pm

THank you my friend. I see your point. The interesting fact is that the first time the Jews were mentioned as “Jews” as coming from the Southern Kingdom of Judah, Benjamin, and the Levites as they fought Israel, the Northern Kingdom of the eventual lost ten tribes of Israel. I am just glad God saves Gentiles. Thank you for your comment.

Lynne February 24, 2018 at 8:40 am

From what I am researching, your statements contradict themselves. If Gentile(s), etho(s), goi/goyim/gowy, and nations means non-Jewish, then Gensis 25:23 “and Yahweh said unto her, two nations are in thy womb “.(This is referring to Rebecca with her pregnancy of Jacob and Esau) “then it should actually read … two non Jewish are in thy womb.” Other examples are, Genesis 17:4, Genesis 25:23, Jeremiah 31:36 and depending on bible translation Luke 5:47, to name just a few. All these examples and other places in the bible these words are used and translated as, would then mean that the nation of is is non Jewish

Jack Wellman February 24, 2018 at 11:45 am

The word “Gentile” is not even in the Old Testament. Your research is flawed as Easu was a non-Jew but Jacob was. These two nations were both from Abraham’s loins, so are you saying that Israel or Jacob is non-Jewish? Can you explain?

Jewel March 29, 2018 at 7:55 am

Thank you for this write up. I still want to know, if the word ‘gentile’is the same as nation, why were the disciples instructed in Matthew 10:5 not to go to any Gentile territory or any Samaritan towns but to go to the lost sheep of the people of Israel?

Gideon September 25, 2018 at 8:50 pm

Ditto

Jack Wellman September 25, 2018 at 9:56 pm

The Gentiles are anyone but Jewish, so it means all the world, but Jesus lated told them to go “into all the world” and teach them the same things Jesus taught them, so the Apostles did just that.

Jack Wellman September 25, 2018 at 9:58 pm

The Gentiles are anyone but Jewish, so it means all the world, but Jesus lated told them to go “into all the world” and teach them the same things Jesus taught them, so the Apostles did just that. Paul said the gospel goes first to the Jew and then the Gentiles, so the disciples did just what they were told and went into all the world unto the Gentiles (like us!).

lcl April 27, 2018 at 7:41 am

This is a very good study Jack. I would like to include your website address under the website God Does Care(.com)

james warren February 9, 2019 at 10:58 pm

Jesus referred to the Gentiles as “dogs” and mocked their praying style.

It is interesting how things have changed. We are Gentiles yet we are susained by a Jesus who was a Jew whose original message was to “the House of Israel.”

Simba April 3, 2019 at 7:54 pm

In Genesis 10, the term Gentiles is used only for the line of Japheth’s lineage. Also if the term Gentiles was used for the descendants of Japheth, how could it mean anyone except Jews before we even knew who the Hebrews/Jews would be at that point?

Jack Wellman April 3, 2019 at 9:02 pm

Hello Simba. There are only two places in the Old Testament, and they’re in Isaiah and Ezekiel,where the word “Gentile” is used. It is not found in the original Hebrew manuscripts in Genesis, so you are mistaken my friend. THere is no connection or Bible proof that Gentiles are descended only from Japeth. What about Ham? Again, there is no Scriptural evidence to support what you wrote. And the word “Jews” didn’t appear until late in 1 Kings, and it was Judah (the Jews) attacking Israel. Jews and Gentiles can be saved. There is no distinction between the two in Christ. Please study this a little closer.

Martha July 31, 2019 at 6:04 pm

Hi Jack,thanks for the explanation,actually I have been reading the Bible,but I was not able to differentiate the two.jews and gentiles.now I understand that gentiles are non Jews,but still in New testament neither Jew nor gentiles,all can be saved.where I didn’t understand and I kindly request your assistance is now that Jews are herritage of Abraham,where did gentiles initially originate?

Jack Wellman July 31, 2019 at 6:32 pm

Hello Martha. Abraham, was at one time, a pagan and Gentile and came from a pagan religion, so all who are not Jews are Gentiles, so they are not really a race or people, but those who are not Jews. In the Old Testament, they were sometimes referred to as aliens or strangers, but God always welcomed aliens or strangers if they obeyed the Law. I hope this helped some. Thank you for your question.

Oladokun Olajide August 17, 2019 at 1:32 am

Thank God for your life sir may the Almighty God continue to impact you more and more with His revelations in Jesus name.
Thank you for this clarification God bless you.

Ernest Parham February 12, 2020 at 9:38 am

Genesis 10:2-5 tell us where the Gentiles come form. Sorry I disagree with you on this topic. John 8:32 say you shall know the true and true shall set you free. The Gentiles are sons of Japheth and there Gomer and Magog ect……….. these people are Europeans. Be careful how we give out half truth.

Jack Wellman February 12, 2020 at 10:01 am

Hello Mr. Parham. You have no biblical evidence nor historical evidence to present that the Gentiles came from Japheth and from Gomer, and Magog. You too are a Gentile as I am. The Bible says there is salvation for both Jew and Gentile and everyone who is not a Jew is by necessity a Gentile. The sons you refer to could be us as we too are Gentile. Thank God He saves Gentiles, otherwise you and I would have no way to be saved. You are actually giving not a half truth, but no truth, so please be careful how you accuse or attack others without substantial proof from the Bible….of which you have none. Please study this better to see your error.





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